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Adilene Magana wrote:

Hi, guys —

I have an important question. I have a friend who is a Jehovah Witness and I asked him how he knew Revelation 1:8 is referring to Jehovah and not Jesus, who is talking. He told me because the word used is translated "LORD" (for Jehovah) and not "Lord" (like for Jesus).

  • Is this true?

I would like to give him an answer.

Thank you so much!

Adilene

  { What is Revelation 1:8 referring to: Jehovah or Jesus? }

John replied:

Hi Adilene,

The context here makes it clear that the text refers to Jesus. We don't even need to go to the original language, but for the sake of argument, the phrase in Greek is Kurious o' Theos translated "Lord the God". There is no mention of the Hebrew Yahweh or Jehovah, which are simply different pronunciations of the same word.

That said, any attempt to insert the word Jehovah is not only incorrect because of the context, but it is an attempt by the Jehovah's witness to change the meaning of the text.

The Jehovah's Witnesses have become infamous for, not only mistranslating the Greek, but they've gone so far as to invent tenses which don't exist in the Greek, simply to sound scholarly to the average biblically illiterate Christian. When these clowns show up talking as though they are Greek scholars, the average uneducated Christian (too often a Catholic) buys in to it, because they sound sophisticated.

John

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