Bringing you the "Good News" of Jesus Christ and His Church While PROMOTING CATHOLIC Apologetic Support groups loyal to the Holy Father and Church's magisterium
Home About
AskACatholic.com
What's New? Resources The Church Family Life Mass and
Adoration
Ask A Catholic
Knowledge base
AskACatholic Disclaimer
Search the
AskACatholic Database
Donate and
Support our work
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs)
New Questions
Cool Catholic Videos
About Saints
Disciplines and Practices
Purgatory and Indulgences
About the Holy Mass
About Mary
Searching and Confused
Homosexual Issues
Life and Family
No Salvation Outside the Church
Sacred Scripture
back
non-Catholic Cults
Justification and Salvation
The Pope and Papacy
The Sacraments
Relationships and Marriage situations
Specific people, organizations and events
Doctrine and Teachings
Specific Practices
Church Internals
Church History


Adrian A. Plesha wrote:

Hi Mike,

Happy Holy Thursday.

  • As Catholics how do we explain the "Bishops shall be married once" passage in the Scriptures?

I am often asked this.

Adrian

  { As Catholics how do we explain the "Bishops shall be married once" passage in the Scriptures? }

Mike replied:

Hi Adrain,

Sorry it took a while to get back to you. This posting should help:

This is another long posting so I've taken the relevant segment that pertain to your question from my colleague, Eric's reply:

In his answer Eric replied, quoting the questioner:

If the Bible is a Catholic book, how can Catholics account for the passage:

"A bishop then, must be blameless, married but once, reserved, prudent, of good conduct, hospitable, a teacher...He should rule well his own household, keeping his children under control and perfectly respectful. For if a man cannot rule his own household, how is he to take care of the church of God?"

1 Timothy 3:2-5

The Catholic Church does not allow a bishop to marry, while the Bible says he must be married.

No, you are misreading it. It says that he cannot be married more than once.
Paul was a bishop and was not married.

  • Do you think he violated his own rule?

Later Eric replied to the questioner:
You still haven't explained how being married is a "requirement" for being a bishop, given than Paul was a bishop but not married (1 Corinthians 7:7), or why his requirements state that "he must be married but once" rather than simply "he must be married". As I said, this means he should not be married more than once, not that he must be married.

  • By the way, do you know what the word for the feast of the Lord's Resurrection is in Latin, Greek, and in most languages other than English and German?

It's identical to the word for "Passover". If you want to argue, we should use the Jewish calendar and celebrate it on the 15th of Nisan, fine, but don't tell me we "changed" the celebration from the Passover to "Easter".

  • I have a question for you, incidentally. Does your church strictly follow Acts 15:29?

If your friends have any other questions they need answered, just tell them to visit our site or they can you the direct link:

http://www.AskACatholic.com/AskUs
to ask a question.

Hope this helps,

Mike

Please report any and all typos or grammatical errors.
Suggestions for this web page and the web site can be sent to Mike Humphrey
© 2012 Panoramic Sites
The Early Church Fathers Church Fathers on the Primacy of Peter. The Early Church Fathers on the Catholic Church and the term Catholic. The Early Church Fathers on the importance of the Roman Catholic Church centered in Rome.