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Manuel wrote:

Hi, guys —

I've been asking a lot of questions about Catholicism recently because I'm considering making my First Communion and I want to be sure that I'm making the right choice. I have two questions:

  1. Do Catholics confess their sins individually if they have committed fornication?
    It seems to me this might be against the book of Ephesians 5:12.

  2. Also, do Catholics accept different Catholic versions of the Bible other then the Douay Rheims version and the New American Bible?

This has always confused me because I have noticed that the newer Catholic versions "omit" verses found in the Douay Rheims.


  { Does Confession to a priest conflict with Ephesians 5 and do Catholics accept different Bibles? }

Paul replied:


Yes, in the sacrament of Confession, the number of times one has fornicated, inasmuch as one can remember, should be confessed to the priest who stands in for Christ. Ephesians 5:12 speaks about another context, not the forgiveness of sins. Take a quick look at John 20:19-23.

Catholics accept different versions of the Bible in varying degrees. Bibles with the deuterocanonical books should be used, and Catholic versions should have the pride of place.
The ones you mention are acceptable, as are the Ignatius Bible (Catholic RSV), the Jerusalem bible, as well as others. Regarding translations, sometimes it's a matter of preference.


Mike replied:

Hi, Manuel —

This posting should help answer your second question.

Hope this helps,


Eric replied:

Manuel —

One should limit to the kind of sin and any circumstances that might affect your guilt.
For example, it's enough to say, "I committed fornication."

This verse refers to speaking of lurid details of sins, especially in ways that might be arousing (hence the "shameful" part). Referring to the sin as fornication is adequate for a valid Confession. In fact, you could even just say "I violated the Sixth Commandment".

Note: Our numbering of the Ten Commandments tends to differ from most Protestant renderings.


Mary Ann replied:

Manuel —

I would only add to my colleague's answers the fact that the reason a verse or verses might be omitted is that the majority, or the most, ancient of the manuscript sources do not contain it.

Usually that is explained in a footnote or introduction.

Mary Ann

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