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Michael Wecke wrote:

Hi, Mike —

I hope you are well.

If you have a moment, perhaps you can help with this question and perhaps, in your answer,
take into account the Scriptural reference below:

  • Why doesn't the Roman Catholic Church ordain women to the priesthood?

Please also have a look at what a bishop from an independent Catholic church had to say about this:

“Please understand that our Church can no longer deny the ordination of qualified, educated women for the ministry."

The Old Catholic Church in Germany and the Anglican Church show that women can serve equally to their counterparts in the Church. We have to rethink our male-orientated and dominated theologies. For good reason we call the Church "Mother Church"!

The above Bishop's argument is also based on Galatians 3, verse 28:

“There is neither Jew nor Greek, there is neither bond nor free, there is neither male nor female: for ye are all one in Christ Jesus.” (KJV)

Thank you very much.

Kind regards,

Michael
North Shore City. Auckland
New Zealand

  { Does this bishop and this Scripture verse defend a female priesthood? }

Mike replied:

Hi, Michael —

This posting and the links within the posting should clarify a lot for you as this is one of those questions we have answered pretty well.

I don't know what you want me to say about a bishop who obviously is dissenting from the Magisterium of the Church.  It is truly scandalous and very sad. For the faithful in the Church,
I apologize for his behavior and statements.

Side note: the Old Catholic Church is a schismatic group who broke with the Church.

I'll let my colleagues comment on the Scripture quoted and how it does or doesn't relate to the issue at hand.

Mike

Eric replied:

Hi, Michael —

St. Paul's point here is in the context of Judaizing controversy: Some were teaching that Gentiles must be circumcised according to the Law of Moses and follow the dietary requirements, etc. Galatians is written to refute this. His point is that Gentiles have salvation apart from the law; that Abraham was justified by faith (Galatians 3:8) and that the Gentile's inheritance comes from Abraham's covenant (verse 14), not from the law which came 430 years later (verse 17).

In other words, they were introducing (or rather perpetuating) a dichotomy between Jew and Greek that Jesus erased (verse 25). All of us, Jews and Greeks (Gentiles), are justified by faith (verse 26, verse 29). The message here in verse 28 is that salvation is now universal, and comes by faith in Christ. We are one; the enmity that existed between Jews and Gentiles is over.
Verse 28 cannot be wrenched out of context or isolated. The point is not that there are no distinctions at all between male and female, or that there aren't proper roles to each. After all,
St. Paul instructed that women are not to teach or have authority over a man (1 Timothy 2:12). Galatians 3:28 must be interpreted consistently with this verse.

Eric

Michael replied:

Hi, Mike —

Thank you for providing such clarity with all the posts. (My thanks also go to Eric Ewanco for putting Galatians 3:28 in its proper context.)

This bishop does indeed espouse the ordination of women into the priesthood in the foreseeable future. For now he uses Galatians 3: 28 as a basis for ordaining women to the diaconate. I have no problem with that but this just constitutes his “first step” to women's role in the ministry.

Well, my arithmetic is not that good, but first step, i.e. deaconess, is already in the major orders and the “second step” can only be ordination of this deaconess to the priesthood. I can't wait for the next RCIA programme.

Again, thank you for your speedy response. This is really much appreciated!

Kind regards,

Michael
North Shore City, Auckland
New Zealand

Eric followed-up:

Hi, Michael —

With respect to woman deacons, it is important to note that within the history of the Church, although there have existed "deaconesses", they were not ordained.

They were employed in an age when baptism was done by full immersion in the nude, and for the sake of propriety baptized women during that time.

Eric

John replied:

Hi, Michael —

Just for the record, Old Catholics rejected Vatican I and it's declaration of papal infallibility.

This was the council that defined papal infallibility, not the pope so the Old Catholics are not rejecting papal infallibility, they are rejecting the infallibility of the extraordinary Magisterium.

That said, these guys really out there.

John

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