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If you have a moment, perhaps you can help
with this question and perhaps, in your answer,
take into account the Scriptural reference
below:
Why doesn't the Roman Catholic Church
ordain women to the priesthood?
Please also have a look at what a bishop from
an independent Catholic church had to say
about this:
“Please understand that our Church
can no longer deny the ordination of qualified,
educated women for the ministry."
The Old Catholic Church in Germany and the
Anglican Church show that women can serve
equally to their counterparts in the Church.
We have to rethink our male-orientated and
dominated theologies. For good reason we call
the Church "Mother Church"!
The above Bishop’s argument is also
based on Galatians 3, verse 28:
“There is neither Jew nor Greek,
there is neither bond nor free, there is
neither male nor female: for ye are all
one in Christ Jesus.” (KJV)
Thank you very much.
Kind regards,
Michael
North Shore City. Auckland
New Zealand
{
Does
this bishop and this Scripture verse defend
a female priesthood? }
Mike
replied:
Hi, Michael —
This posting and the links within
the posting should clarify a lot
for you as this is one of those questions
we have answered pretty well.
I don't know what you want me to
say about a bishop who obviously
is dissenting from the Magisterium
of the Church. It is truly
scandalous and very sad. For the
faithful in the Church,
I apologize for his behavior and
statements.
Side note: the Old Catholic Church
is a schismatic group who broke with
the Church.
I'll let my colleagues comment on
the Scripture quoted and how it does
or doesn't relate to the issue at
hand.
Mike
Eric
replied:
Hi, Michael —
St. Paul's point here is in the context
of Judaizing controversy: Some were
teaching that Gentiles must be circumcised
according to the Law of Moses and
follow the dietary requirements,
etc. Galatians is written to refute
this. His point is that Gentiles
have salvation apart from the law;
that Abraham was justified by faith
(Galatians 3:8) and that the Gentile's
inheritance comes from Abraham's
covenant (verse 14), not from the
law which came 430 years later (verse
17).
In other words, they were introducing
(or rather perpetuating) a dichotomy
between Jew and Greek that Jesus
erased (verse 25). All of us, Jews
and Greeks (Gentiles), are justified
by faith (verse 26, verse 29). The
message here in verse 28 is that
salvation is now universal, and comes
by faith in Christ. We are one; the
enmity that existed between Jews
and Gentiles is over.
Verse 28 cannot be wrenched out of
context or isolated. The point is
not that there are no distinctions
at all between male and female, or
that there aren't proper roles to
each. After all,
St. Paul instructed that women are
not to teach or have authority over
a man (1 Timothy 2:12). Galatians
3:28 must be interpreted consistently
with this verse.
Eric
Michael
replied:
Hi, Mike —
Thank you for providing such clarity
with all the posts. (My thanks also
go to Eric Ewanco for putting Galatians
3:28 in its proper context.)
This bishop does indeed espouse the
ordination of women into the priesthood
in the foreseeable future. For now
he uses Galatians 3: 28 as a basis
for ordaining women to the diaconate.
I have no problem with that but this
just constitutes his “first
step” to women’s role
in the ministry.
Well, my arithmetic is not that good,
but first step, i.e. deaconess, is
already in the major orders and the “second
step” can only be ordination
of this deaconess to the priesthood.
I can’t wait for the next RCIA
programme.
Again, thank you for your speedy
response. This is really much appreciated!
Kind regards,
Michael
North Shore City, Auckland
New Zealand
Eric
followed-up:
Hi, Michael —
With respect to woman deacons, it
is important to note that within
the history of the Church, although
there have existed "deaconesses",
they were not ordained.
They were employed in an age when
baptism was done by full immersion
in the nude, and for the sake of
propriety baptized women during that
time.
Eric
John
replied:
Hi, Michael —
Just for the record, Old Catholics
rejected Vatican I and it's declaration
of papal infallibility.
This was the council that defined
papal infallibility, not the pope
so the Old Catholics are not rejecting
papal infallibility, they are rejecting
the infallibility of the extraordinary
Magisterium.
That said, these guys really out
there.
John
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