Hi Joshua,

Thanks for your question. We actually already have an answers on the site to your questions. See

• Why does your pagan Catholic Church call priests "father" when they are pedophiles?
• Calling priests, "father" and praying to Mary.

and

• Call No Man Father? (Matthew 23:9) Notes.

Hope this helps, let us know if there is any follow up question you have.

Eric Ewanco

Joshua,

Congratulations on your marriage. I wish you many blessings and that God will truly provide you with a holy and powerful union.

Regarding your questions; I know you are busy with nuptial affairs, but when you have a moment, please check these thoughts out.

#1. With respect to Jesus admonition to call no man "father, teacher or master" we must determine what his context and intent is. If he meant it literally, we should call no man such in any sense. Biological or adopted children could not refer to their male parent as such, nor could we address Doctors (which means teacher) as such. However, against this, even Jesus himself makes such references of human being and their parents, i.e., Mk 20:29. Furthermore, there is a commandment which demands that we bring honor to our Father and Mother. In addition, history bears out that this interpretation has seldom been accepted, and not without a very subjective partial adherence. A completely literal interpretation is not accepted anywhere.

So then, he must mean it in a non literal sense. A symbolic or spiritual sense may be implied, but to what extent and in what circumstance? Does Jesus mean to suggest that no man be considered a spiritual father in any case? Against this, Paul himself would be violating such an admonition. He calls himself "father" (a far more arrogant use of the word than by another) with respect to Onesimus (Philippians 1:10), and "teacher", 2 Timothy 2:11 and implies it with Timothy and Titus, "a true child in the faith" (cf. 1 Timothy 1:1). So being a symbolic or spiritual Father or Teacher is not inconsistent with Scripture and Tradition. Paul would be leading us contrary to Jesus' words if that was the case.

What then may be the context and intent that Jesus implies? There was in Jesus' time, as in our own, a tendency to identify a particular individual as an enlightened one, one who is capable by his own power of showing the way to salvation. A guru in short. In Acts 16, Paul rebukes a woman who had proclaimed they had "a way" of salvation; as if there were several. Jesus is the only way, and Paul and all Apostles who follow him authentically know this and won't tolerate being lauded as an enlightened leader. This is the kind of arrogance Jesus rebukes, and the false discipleship that goes with it. Sadly, there will always be the charlatans that seek to dupe people into following their way. These counterfeits propose to be a sort of God on earth with their own recipe for salvation. Essentially, our understanding of Jesus' admonition is against those that claim and follow a way contrary to the "true" way in Christ himself.

Finally, Catholics use the word "father" as a title in recognition of the important role that God the true Father has given to his Apostles and their assistants. We consider the Church "the family" of God, and the titles are fittingly given, for a father helps raise the children to their own full stature. This is how Paul, and I'm sure the other Apostles, viewed their role beyond being mere instructors. A close reading of Paul in his epistles will reveal this attitude sharply.

#2. Jesus is merely pointing out the obvious, Mary isn't blessed because she had breasts and suckled Jesus, but because she did "hear the word of God and obey it." Remember Elizabeth's words, "blessed is she who believed that what was spoken to you by the Lord would be fulfilled." (Luke 1:45)

We honor Mary because Jesus gave her to us as a gift (cf. Jn 19:26-27, we believe the beloved disciple represents each of us, not merely John, who is unnamed--a theme throughout this Gospel) We pray to saints only in as much as we consider them part of the family of God and seek their prayers for us--they have no power on their own. They are powerful intercessors only, as any holy person is. While Protestants often object on the grounds that we are to have no contact with the "dead", we say they are "alive" in Christ. And what are we to make of Jesus' interactions with Moses and Elijah on the mount of Transfiguration? Did he have illicit contact with the dead? We are a family, and while, unlike Jesus, we can't see with our eyes those who spur us on to Holiness, we believe we are surrounded by a "cloud of witnesses" (Hebrews 12:1) that bid our good blessing in this race to the finish line and intercede for a hastening of our redemption (Revelation 6:9-11).

I realize this has gone on for longer than I intended, but this hardly scratches this last subject. I hope you will continue to read the scriptures and consult history for the fullest understanding of the gift which has been handed us.

Peace,

Bob Kirby

Hi Joshua,

Anyone (except those in Hell) can help us get to Jesus, whether it's by praying for us, witnessing to us, or even serving as a counterexample. I suppose the question behind your question is, how can Mary, who is in heaven, help us get to heaven according to the Scriptures.

To that I would answer, on account of her prayers. This is part of a doctrine known as the communion of saints, which is a very ancient one (it appears in the Apostle's Creed and is testified to in the catacombs of Rome). First of all, the saints are present with us. You can see this in Hebrews chapter 12, verses 1 and 23. Verse one, after listing a bunch of Old Testament saints, concludes saying "Therefore, since we are surrounded by so great a cloud of witnesses ...", thus teaching that the saints surround us like a cloud, cheering us on as it were in the Christian life. Later on, Christian worship is described, and present at that worship are the "spirits of just men made perfect" -- the saints in heaven. Since they are present with us, it is reasonable to conclude that they can hear us. In fact, in Revelation 5:8, we see certain saints carrying our prayers to the throneroom of God, proving again that they have a role in our prayers.

Now, do they actually pray for us? This seems suggested by Jeremiah 15:1 where God's comment, "Though Moses and Samuel stood before me, yet my heart would not turn toward this people" indicates that there is intercession going on the part of the saints (note that Moses and Samuel's lives did not overlap with each other or with Jeremiah's by hundreds of years).

Therefore, we can conclude that the saints are around us, can hear us, and pray for us. But what about Mary's role? Consider Psalm 45, verses 9-17. First look at verse 17, which speaks of the queen: "I will cause your name to be celebrated in all generations; therefore the peoples will praise you for ever." What does that evoke? Mary's words in the Magnificat, "All generations will call me blessed."

The Psalm refers to a king and a queen. The king is the messiah; the queen is his queen. But Jewish kings crowned, not their wives (for they had many), but their mothers'' queen. (see 2 Kings 10:13, Jeremiah 13:18, 1 Kings 2:19). This is in agreement with Revelation 12, which portrays the mother of the Messiah with a crown on her head in queenly splendor. So, Psalm 45 is, at least in one sense, about Mary. It says, "Instead of your fathers shall be your sons, you will make them princes in all the earth." So there is a type of intercession going on here, where Mary can make her sons princes in all the earth. If she can make them princes on earth, how much more can she also bring them to salvation through her son Jesus Christ?

So that is in part the biblical basis for Mary being able to help us get to Jesus. She can pray for us, and through those prayers ("the prayer of a righteous man is powerful and effective", James 5:16) bring us to God.

Eric